Precisely what I was looking for. Is there an actual story where Jesus washed someone's feet or is this just an example? Also, does anybody know if the word "Lord" transfers directly into Lord in English from Aramaik? In England it's a very common word for people to refer to their bosses, and was popular when there were tons of slaves in America and Egland where they'd refer to their masters by "Lord". Also, why does the first one say lord and master, while the other one says lord and teacher? How could a whole word change so much, the definiteion of teacher is not close to that of master. Woofer, The Musilm version of the sacrifice is slightly different. Jeff, I'm not sure I totally understood your post. Are you saying that there's no way we'll ever know "the truth", whatever truth that may be, because it's so complex?
The verses right before talk about this: "1 Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end. 2 And supper being ended, the devil having now put into the heart of Judas Iscariot Simon's son, to betray him; 3 Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things unto his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God; 4 He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel and girded himself. 5 After that he poureth water into a basin, and began to wash the disciples' feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded. 6 Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter said unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet? 7 Jesus answered and said unto him, what I do thou knowest not now; but thou shall know hereafter. 8 Peter saith unto him, thou shalt never wash my feet. Jesus answered him, if I wash thee not, thou hast no part with me. 9 Simon Peter saith unto him, Lord, not my feet only, but also my hands and my head. 10 Jesus saith to him, he that is washed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean every wit: and ye are clean, but not all. 11 For he knew who should betray him; therefore said he, ye are not all clean. 12 So after he had washed their feet, and had taken his garments, and was set down again, he said unto them, Know ye what I have done to you? 13 Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am. 14 If I then your Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet. 15 For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you. 16 Verily, verily, I say unto you, the servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him. 17 If ye know these things, happy are ye if ye do them." Also, Sane, here is an interesting verse for you that deals with your other issue, it is from the book of Luke, chapter 20, verses 41-44: 41 And He said to them, "How is it that they say the Christ is David's son? 42 For David himself says in the book of Psalms, 43 The Lord said to my Lord Sit at my right hand Until I make thine enemies a footstool for thy feet. 44 David therefore calls Him 'Lord', and how is He his son?"
I suspect that "lord" can be translated into "divine" or "god-like". For example, Lord God Lord Jesus, Jesus our Lord Assigning theological meaning to one verse is problematic. Some believe that Jesus was Lord of Earth, while God the Father was Lord of heaven.
Yes, Lord does transfer to Lord in English to Aramaic, however, like No Worries said, it's not always good to solely attach religion to a word, especially since, during both time periods, the word could be used in different veins. Master and Teacher used in this sense are quite similar. Master means being the "master" of something so much that you are capable of teaching something. One might call their Karate teacher, Master, not just because he is the "leader" of the class, but also, because he possesses the knowledge/expertise/etc ... I think it is used in this way to distinguish from the Master/Slave connotation that comes from the use of "Lord" that is also used. If it were to mean Master/Slave, then it would kind of be redundant, but in this sense He makes a distinct differentiation, telling the disciples that he is not only their Leader (Lord), but also their Teacher (Master). For them he was the ultimate Master of God's word, and thus highly capable of teaching them.
Sane, I'll try to give you an answer with a wide perspective. Moses led the Israelites out of slavery. He was Israel's lawgiver. He set up the tabernacle (see my first post). He led the Israelites for 40 years in the desert, and he led them to the borders of the promised land. After Moses died, Joshua led the Israelites into the promised land. "By faith Moses, when he had grown up, refused to be known as the son of Pharoah's daughter. He chose to be mistreated along with the people of God rather than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a short time. He regarded disgrace for the sake of Christ as of greater value than the treasures of Egypt, because he was looking ahead to his reward" (Hebrews 11:24-26). God gave the Israelites the law through Moses. The New Testament places the law in perspective. Paul writes: "Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be silenced and the whole world held accountable to God. Therefore no one will be declared righteous in his sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin" (Romans 3:19-20). The law highlighted the sinfulness of human beings and the holiness of God. Because we are all sinners, a person cannot be justified (declared righteous) based on his/her own merit. In Isaiah 53, Isaiah prophesied that the Messiah would be "pierced for our transgressions" (v. 5), and that he would "justify the many" and "bear their iniquities" (v. 11). Paul writes that "no one will be declared righteous in [God's] sight by observing the law; rather, through the law we become conscious of sin" (Romans 3:20). He then explains the only way a person can be justified (declared righteous). "But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood" (Romans 3:21-25). "For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from observing the law" (Romans 3:28). John 1:17-18 sums up this post. "For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known" (John 1:17-18).
Ok, after a quick search of a few dictionaries... It seems to me as if the anointed one translates into "the chosen one" or "chosen through divine circumstances". When reffered to as Lord, as I mentioned earlier, many people used to refer to people ni a higher position as "Lord". As for the quotes, it's unclear whether he said teacher or master. Either way, God is not merely a teacher or master he's much more that that. It seems the evidence is quite poor honestly. If someone wanted to have faith in Christianity, is this all the evidence he'd get? Can anyone find me a reliable link that would explain the trinity?
Taken together, "the Law" and "the Prophets" designated the entire Old Testament, including "the Writings," the third section of the Hebrew Bible. The Hebrew Bible: 1. The Law - Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy 2. The Prophets The Former Prophets - Joshua, Judges, Samuel, Kings The Latter Prophets - Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, and the Twelve Minor Prophets 3. The Writings The Old Testament of the Christian Bible: 1. The Law Books (the Pentateuch) - Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy 2. The History Books - Joshua, Judges, Ruth, 1 and 2 Samuel, 1 and 2 Kings, 1 and 2 Chronicles, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther 3. The Poetry and Wisdom Books - Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Song of Solomon 4. The Books of the Major Prophets - Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lamentations, Ezekiel, Daniel 5. The Books of the Minor Prophets - Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi
I highly recommend James R. White's book, The Forgotten Trinity. I've copied a brief definition of the Trinity written by White. You should click on the link to see the diagram. A Brief Definition of the Trinity by James White I know that one of the most oft-repeated questions I have dealt with is, "How does one explain, or even understand, the doctrine of the Trinity?" Indeed, few topics are made such a football by various groups that, normally, claim to be the "only" real religion, and who prey upon Christians as "convert fodder." Be that as it may, when the Christian is faced with a question regarding the Trinity, how might it best be explained? For me, I know that simplifying the doctrine to its most basic elements has been very important and very useful. When we reduce the discussion to the three clear Biblical teachings that underlie the Trinity, we can move our discussion from the abstract to the concrete Biblical data, and can help those involved in false religions to recognize which of the Biblical teachings it is denying. We must first remember that very few have a good idea of what the Trinity is in the first place—hence, accuracy in definition will be very important. The doctrine of the Trinity is simply that there is one eternal being of God—indivisible, infinite. This one being of God is shared by three co-equal, co-eternal persons, the Father, the Son, and the Spirit. It is necessary here to distinguish between the terms "being" and "person." It would be a contradiction, obviously, to say that there are three beings within one being, or three persons within one person. So what is the difference? We clearly recognize the difference between being and person every day. We recognize what something is, yet we also recognize individuals within a classification. For example, we speak of the "being" of man—human being. A rock has "being"—the being of a rock, as does a cat, a dog, etc. Yet, we also know that there are personal attributes as well. That is, we recognize both "what" and "who" when we talk about a person. The Bible tells us there are three classifications of personal beings—God, man, and angels. What is personality? The ability to have emotion, will, to express oneself. Rocks cannot speak. Cats cannot think of themselves over against others, and, say, work for the common good of "cat kind." Hence, we are saying that there is one eternal, infinite being of God, shared fully and completely by three persons, Father, Son and Spirit. One what, three who's. NOTE: We are not saying that the Father is the Son, or the Son the Spirit, or the Spirit the Father. It is very common for people to misunderstand the doctrine as to mean that we are saying Jesus is the Father. The doctrine of the Trinity does not in any way say this! The three Biblical doctrines that flow directly into the river that is the Trinity are as follows: 1) There is one and only one God, eternal, immutable. 2) There are three eternal Persons described in Scripture - the Father, the Son, and the Spirit. These Persons are never identified with one another—that is, they are carefully differentiated as Persons. 3) The Father, the Son, and the Spirit, are identified as being fully deity—that is, the Bible teaches the Deity of Christ and the Deity of the Holy Spirit. The three sides of the triangle represent the three Biblical doctrines, as labeled. When one denies any of these three teachings, the other two sides point to the result. Hence, if one denies that there are Three Persons, one is left with the two sides of Full Equality and One God, resulting in the "Oneness" teaching of the United Pentecostal Church and others. If one denies Fully Equality, one is left with Three Persons and One God, resulting in "subordinationism" as seen in Jehovah's Witnesses, the Way International, etc. (though to be perfectly accurate the Witnesses deny all three of the sides in some way—they deny Full Equality (i.e., Jesus is Michael the Archangel), Three Persons (the Holy Spirit is an impersonal, active "force" like electricity) and One God (they say Jesus is "a god"—a lesser divinity than Yahweh; hence they are in reality not monotheists but henotheists). And, if one denies One God, one is left with polytheism, the belief in many gods, as seen clearly in the Mormon Church, the most polytheistic religion I have encountered. Hopefully these brief thoughts will be of help to you as you "grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ." http://aomin.org/trinitydef.html
Sane, Here are a a few Trinity history tidbits The Holy "Trinity" was not itself officially invented until the Council of Constantinople, in 381 A.D. and When Erasmus of Rotterdam published Europe's first Greek New Testament in 1516 he omitted the Trinitarian proof-text, 1 John 5:7: Needless to say, Erasmus was stoutly criticized for the omission. He defended himself by declaring that he would have included the verse (well-known in the Latin Bible) had he been able to find a single Greek MS that contained it. Soon thereafter Erasmus was presented a Greek Bible containing the verse! Suspecting a fraud, but unable to prove it, Erasmus added the verse, to later editions of his Bible, the book destined to become the Textus Receptus -- the book from which the King James translators would derive the "authorized" English version of 1611. Tough luck for the Trinity, Erasmus' intuition was correct. To this day no Greek MS older than the fifteenth to sixteenth century has ever been found to contain the passage. It is now known that the verse was a fourth-century Spanish invention, finally appearing in MSS of the Latin Vulgate (the official Bible of the Roman Catholic Church) around the year 800.
Sane, Correct me if I'm wrong, but you believe that Jesus never intended for anyone to believe that he was/is God. When you wrote that "the evidence is poor," were you asserting that the evidence that Jesus intended for people to believe that he was/is God is poor? If that's what you were asserting, it doesn't seem like you've done enough research to be able to fairly draw that conclusion. If you're still unclear about the definition of the Trinity, I don't think you can legitimately evaluate the evidence, anyway. The Gospel of John begins with the words, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1). If Jesus never intended for John to believe that Jesus was God, then do you think that John's misrepresentation was intentional or unintentional? Or do you think that someone else wrote or edited that verse?
The Gospel of Mark heretically implies that Jesus did not think himself God. Some verse or other has Jesus saying "Only God is good."
These are some excerpts from a well-written paper. Purpose and Meaning of Ego Eimi in the Gospel of John In Reference to the Deity of Christ by James White The Gospel of John has come under great fire in recent centuries for its incredibly high Christology. On this basis alone certain form-critics have rejected the book as having any historical authenticity whatsoever, assuming (without foundation) that such a high Christology could only have evolved after quite some time of "theological formulation" and hence placing its writing well into the second century. Fortunately, not all scholars share the same unfounded presuppositions. The person of Christ as presented in John's Gospel is indeed of an exceptionally high character—John asserts that Jesus is "the Word become flesh" (John 1:14). He says that this Word is eternal, has always been "with" God (pros ton theon) and indeed shares the very being of God (John 1:1). John describes Jesus as the unique God (monogenes theos) in John 1:18. He portrays Jesus saying that He is the way, the truth, and the life—that man's very life and salvation is dependent upon his relationship with Him (a claim nothing short of blasphemy for a mere created being!), and the Gospel climaxes in Thomas' confession of Jesus as his "Lord and God". Though the evidences of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ are numerous in this book, one set of these evidences has always fascinated theologians. Jesus utilizes the specific phrase ego eimi of Himself frequently in John's Gospel, and a number of times He does so in a pregnant way, not providing any immediately identifiable predicate. John's recording of these sayings is also significant, as he provides rather obvious settings for these sayings, emphasizing their importance. Is there a significance to this phrase? What is it's purpose and meaning? Does this phrase present yet another aspect of the Deity of Christ? This shall be the topic of the following investigation. Usage of ego eimi in the Gospel of John The specific phrase ego eimi occurs 24 times in the Gospel of John. Seventeen of these times it is followed by a clear predicate. Some of these instances would be John 6:35, "I am the living bread" (ego eimi ho artos tes zoes) or John 10:11, "I am the good shepherd" (ego eimi ho poimen ho kalos). 3 times the usage does not fall into a clear category—these would be 4:26, 6:20, and 9:9. In 4:26 Jesus says to the woman at the well, "I am, the one speaking to you" (ego eimi, ho lalon soi) which is strangely reminiscent of the LXX rendering of Isaiah 52:6 (ego eimi autos ho lalon). In 6:20 it seems to be a rather straight-forward self-identification to the frightened disciples in the boat. And in 9:9 we find the man who had been healed of his blindness insisting that he was indeed the man of whom they spoke. This last instance is similar to the sayings as Jesus utters them, in that the phrase comes at the end of the clause and looks elsewhere for its predicate. Given the above usages, we are left with 7 usages that have been described as "absolute". These would be John 8:24, 8:28, 8:58, 13:19, 18:5, 18:6, and 18:8. It is these seven passages that make up the bulk of the discussion concerning the use of ego eimi by John. For the sake of accurate examination, the transliterations of these phrases are provided below: John 8:24: ean gar me pistuesete hoti ego eimi John 8:28: tote gnosesthe hoti ego eimi John 8:58: prin Abraam genethai ego eimi John 13:19: hina pisteusete hotan genetai ego eimi John 18:5: legei autois Ego eimi John 18:6: hos oun eipen autois Ego eimi John 18:8: eipon humin hoti ego eimi The main verses that will undergo examination here are 8:24, 8:58, 13:19, and 18:5-6. In the author's translation these passages read as follows: John 8:24: "Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins." John 8:58: "Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." John 13:19: "From now on I tell you before it comes to pass in order that when it does happen, you may believe that I am." John 18:5-6: "They answered Him, "Jesus the Nazarene." He said to them, "I am." And Judas also, the one who betrayed Him, was standing with them. Therefore when He said to them, "I am," they went backwards and fell upon the ground." Old Testament Background of ego eimi An extensive discussion of this topic is beyond the scope of this paper. Suffice it to say that the position taken by this writer reflects a consensus opinion of many scholars, that being that the closest and most logical connection between John's usage of ego eimi and the Old Testament is to be found in the Septuagint rendering of the Hebrew phrase ani hu in the writings (primarily) of Isaiah. It is true that many go directly to Exodus 3:14 for the background, but it is felt that unless one first establishes the connection with the direct quotation of ego eimi in the Septuagint, the connection with Exodus 3:14 will be somewhat tenuous. The Septuagint translates the Hebrew phrase ani hu as ego eimi in Isaiah 41:4, 43:10 and 46:4. In each of these instances the phrase ani hu appears at the end of the clause, and is so rendered (or punctuated) in the LXX (just as in these seven examples in John). The phrase ego eimi appears as the translation of a few other phrases in Isaiah as well that are significant to this discussion. It translates the Hebrew anoki anoki hu as ego eimi in 43:25 and 51:12. Once (52:6) ani hu is translated as ego eimi autos (basically an even more emphasized form). And once (45:18) we find ego eimi kurios for ani Yahweh! This last passage is provocative in that it is in the context of creation, an act ascribed to Jesus by John (John 1:3) and other New Testament writers (Colossians 1:16-17, Hebrews 1:2-3). Conclusion It could fairly be admitted that an immediate and unqualified jump from the ego eimi of John 8:58 to Exodus 3:14 is unwise. The connection that is much more properly traced is the one given here, that of ego eimi/ani hu as found in Isaiah. The connection between Isaiah and Exodus 3:14 is so obvious as to be undeniable. We have seen that John uses ego eimi in more than one way—the majority of the time providing a predicate. Even these are astounding in their majesty in regards to the person of Christ. Here Jesus is said to be the way, the truth, and the life; the light of the world; the bread of life; and the good shepherd, each of which it should be noted, has parallels to statements made by Yahweh in the Old Testament. But the bulk of this paper has been devoted to those passages where the phrase is used in a specific sense—in an "absolute" sense. Upon examining these we have seen that they find their origin and background in the book of Isaiah's usage of the Hebrew term ani hu and its translation as ego eimi in the LXX. We have seen the close parallel between Isaiah 43:10 and John 13:19, both in form as well as thought content. We have also seen how the context of the passages themselves—the setting and teaching of the entire book of John—makes the identification of ego eimi and its resultant presentation of the deity of Christ inevitable. We have seen how John purposefully emphasizes these phrases, helping us to grasp their significance. In closing, we might do well to look, then, with this understanding in mind, at Jesus' words at John 8:24: "unless you believe that I am, you will die in your sins." Jesus here gives us the content and object of saving faith—faith, real faith is that which comes to the real Jesus. A faith that demands a change in Jesus before a commitment is made is not real faith at all. The Jews standing about Him during this conversation most assuredly would not have denied that He was a man—but that was not sufficient for faith. Some had just recently proclaimed Him as Messiah—but that was not sufficient for faith. Some might hail Him as a prophet or a miracle worker, blessed by God—but that was not sufficient for faith. Some today say He was a great moral teacher and philosopher—but that is not sufficient for faith. Some call Him "a god" or a great angel—but that is not sufficient for faith. No, Jesus Himself laid down the line—unless one believes Him for whom He says He is—the ego eimi—one will die in one's sins. There is no salvation in a false Christ. If we are to be united with Christ to have eternal life, then we must be united with the true Christ, not a false representation. It is out of love that Christ uttered John 8:24. We would do well to heed His words. http://aomin.org/EGO.html
"The Gospel of Mark heretically implies that Jesus did not think himself God"? Strong words. You sound pretty sure of yourself. If you want to reject Christ because of Mark 10:18 (or Matthew 19:17 or Luke 18:19), so be it. Jesus answered the man's question the way he did for a purpose. As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him. "Good teacher," he asked, "what must I do to inherit eternal life?" "Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good—except God alone. You know the commandments: 'Do not murder, do not commit adultery, do not steal, do not give false testimony, do not defraud, honor your father and mother.' " - Mark 10:17-19 These are excerpts from The Holiness of God, by R. C. Sproul. Something is often missed in this well-known meeting between Jesus and the rich ruler. It is the significance of the man's greeting to Jesus. He called Him, "Good teacher." Jesus did not miss the significance of it. Jesus knew at once that he was talking to a man who had a superficial understanding of the word good. The man wanted to talk to Jesus about salvation. Instead Jesus subtly turned the conversation around to a discussion of what goodness was. He took the opportunity to give the man an unforgettable lesson on the meaning of good. Jesus focused on the man's greeting. "Why do you call me good?" He accented the question with a further qualification: "No one is good—except God alone." Let a red alert sound here. Some people, even learned theologians, have stumbled over Jesus' comments. Some hear Jesus saying in effect, "Why are you calling me good? I am not good. Only God is good. I am not God. I am not good. By no means was Jesus denying his own deity here. Neither was he denying his own goodness. Given the right understanding it would have been perfectly fitting for the rich ruler to call Jesus good. He was the incarnation of the Good. The rich man was talking to God incarnate. The point is, however, that the rich man was not aware of that. He was honoring Jesus as a great teacher, but that is all he saw in Him. He had no idea he was speaking to God Incarnate; he had no clue he was discussing goodness with the Incarnation of the Good. The rich young ruler obviously did not know his Bible. He had failed to understand the meaning of Psalm 14: The fool says in his heart, "There is no God." They are corrupt, their deeds are vile; there is no one who does good. The LORD looks down from heaven on the sons of men to see if there are any who understand, any who seek God. All have turned aside, they have together become corrupt; there is no one who does good, not even one. - Psalm 14:1-3 This psalm is quoted and amplified in the New Testament by the apostle Paul. The message is unmistakable. The indictment allows for no exceptions save for the Son of God who alone achieves goodness. The human spirit recoils from such a universal indictment. Surely the Scriptures exaggerate. We know several people who do good. We see people perform good deeds frequently. We grant that no one is perfect. We all slip up from time to time. But we do perform a few good deeds now and then, don't we? No! This is precisely the way the rich young ruler was thinking. He was measuring goodness by the wrong standard. He was evaluating good deeds from an outward vantage point. God commands that we do certain good deeds. He commands that we give alms to the poor. We give our alms to the poor. That is a good deed, isn't it? Yes and no. It is good in the sense that our outward act conforms to what God commands. In that sense we do good often. But God also looks at the heart. He is concerned about our deepest motivations. For a good deed to pass the standard of God's holiness, it must flow out of a heart that loves God perfectly and loves our neighbor perfectly as well. Since none of this achieves that perfect love for God and our neighbor, all our outwardly good deeds are tarnished. The logic of the Bible is this: Since no one has a perfect heart, no one does a perfect deed. The law of God is the mirror of true righteousness. When we set our works before the mirror, the reflection in it tells us of our imperfections. Jesus held this mirror up before the eyes of the rich young ruler. "You know the commandments: Do not steal....." It is important to note here that the commandments Jesus listed for the young ruler were those included in the so-called second table of the law, the commandments that deal with our responsibilities toward fellow human beings. These are the commandments that concern stealing, adultery, murder, and so on. Noticeably absent in Jesus' summary were the first few commandments that deal explicitly with our direct obligations to God. How did the rich man answer? He was not bothered. He calmly looked in the mirror and so no imperfections. In what can only be described as a smug manner, the man replied: "All these I have kept since I was a boy." Imagine the arrogance or the ignorance of the man. I find it hard to understand Jesus' patience. I would have instantly expressed my indignation by saying something like, "What! You have kept the Ten Commandments since you were a boy! You haven't kept any of the Ten Commandments for the last five minutes. Didn't you hear the Sermon on the Mount? Don't you realize if you are unjustly angry with someone, you have violated the deeper meaning of the law against murder? Don't you know that if you lust after a woman, you break the deeper law of adultery? Don't you ever covet? Have you ever and always honored your parents? You are mad or blind. Your obedience has been superficial at best. You obey on the surface only." That is how I would have handled it. Jesus was more subtle, and more effective: When Jesus heard this, he said to him, "You still lack one thing. Sell everything you have and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me." - Luke 18:22 If Jesus ever spoke with tongue-in-cheek it was here. If we take Jesus' words literally, we would be forced to conclude that the conversation took place betweeen the two most righteous men in history: that it was a dialogue between the Lamb without blemish and a lamb with only one blemish. I would be delighted to hear from Jesus that my moral perfection lacked only one thing. We know better. If we speculate and try to get into the secret recesses of Jesus' mind, we can imagine a thought process that went something like this: Oh, you have kept all the commandments since you were a child. Well, let's see. What is the first commandment? Oh, yes. "Thou shalt have no other gods before Me." Let's see how you handle that one. Jesus put him to the test. If anything in the rich man's life came before God, it was his money. Jesus set the challenge precisely at this point, at the point of the man's obedience to commandment number one: "Go, sell all that you have...." What did the man do? How did he handle his only blemish? He walked away sorrowfully, for he had great possessions. The man was put to the test of the Ten Commandments and he flunked out after the first question. The point of this narrative is not to lay down a law that a Christian must get rid of all private property. The point is for us to understand what obedience is and what goodness actually requires. Jesus called the man's bluff, and he folded.
Sane, So is your main problem one having to do with Christ also being God? As for your questioning of the use of the word "Lord", when reading the verses of John 13, do you get the impression that he is saying Lord in the sense of someone in a "higher position" or Lord as in God. Throughout the Bible, Jesus never put himself in a position "higher" than that of the disciples as you speak of. He never acted as a lord in the "higher position" definition that you are attributing to that time. I don't see a lack in clarity in the use of Master/Teacher. If you would look into the use of various versions and translations of the Bible, different words are used to have the same meaning. In regards to these specific words (Master/Teacher), if one is a Master of a subject, then they are unequivocably "fit to teach". In this case, Jesus was definitely a Master of the subject (God's Word) as He had shown many times. So, in one form of a translation and in respondent to a particular era or epoch, the word Master may have been appropriate. As time progressed, however, Master has become less and less used as a term meaning on that has mastered a subject and is, thus, fit to teach it (except for the case of gaining a "Masters" degree, but now a Doctorate is used more in this sense). So, now, in the newest translations and in our current era, using "Teacher" makes more sense. I hope this clears up the different words used to convery the same meaning.
This is basically the whole point I'm trying to make. I would argue that the meanings are not the same, but are similar. Nonetheless, there is a difference, and although teacher and master are close, they would imply two completely different things in this scenario. If my teacher called himself my master I would fume, and so would you. KateBeckinsale, You're going backwards, me and MadMax already discussed those quotes. The discussion I'm trying to have is not that Jesus is NOT God, some say he is some say he isn't, but that there's no proof for it. Also, from reading those coupel of articles, am I correct to assume that people LATER invented the Trinity theory, AFTER Jesus died and AFTER he could verify it? To answer your questions... I've heard you say it over and over, using the number in every single thread, so I'll use it so you can relate to it.. I wouldn't be and am not convinced with 99.5% textual accuracy. It seems to me that everytime a religious topic is brought up regarding the Bible, people always seem to find "missing text" or "similar meanings" or things like that. How am I supposed to be convinced of anything when some parts are clearly inaccurate? No Worries, May I ask for your source? I'd like to read more.
Sane, that is basically my point. During the time that the version using Master was written, using the word "master" in place of teacher, would NOT cause the person to FUME. Having that in mind, however, when writing the newer translation of the Bible, the translators took into account what your sentiments were and chose to use teacher instead of master. On another note, does the Koran (sp?) have different translations, which use different words in certain instances? Do these word choices provide the same problem that they are causing you now?