I wanted a clarification on whether or not a foul could have been called against the Rockets if Jalen Rose was fouled after the game buzzer sounded in the third OT. According to http://www.basketball.com/nba/rules/rule5.shtml, APPARENTLY NOT! **************************************************** Section III-End of Period a. Each period ends when time expires. EXCEPTIONS: (2) If a personal or technical foul occurs at :00.0, but prior to the horn sounding (my bold print), the period officially ends after the free throw(s) are attempted. The free throw(s) will be attempted immediately. **************************************************** So the question is, when did the "foul" occur -- before or at the buzzer. Since we all know Rose's shot came after the buzzer sounded, the "foul" (if there is one) may have occurred after the buzzer sounded as well. This would shoot down Chicago's legitimacy of tonight's win. I know, this won't change anything, but I find this to be very interesting, nonetheless.
What foul? THere was NO foul called. The shot was after the buzzer, and no foul was called, it should not have counted. DD
Dakota, that's what Bull fans are saying -- that there was a foul on the Rockets before Rose's shot. After checking the replay, I saw 0.0 on the scoreboard after Walt Williams JUST BARELY touched Rose on the arm.
You can call a foul on EVERY single play in the NBA....refs NEVER call fouls on late baskets. No foul...and the shot should not have counted. DD
