I just watched Ausmus make it to first from a wild pitch strikeout since the catcher couldn't retrieve the ball and throw it to first. I was just wondering if anyone has ever seen a scenario where the batter is 0-2 and the pitcher makes a terrible wild pitch that no batter would swing at. Despite that much, the batter still swings at a pitch lets say is 5 feet over his head and the catcher is unable to retrieve it to throw the ball to first. Would the ump allow an intentional strikeout knowing that the batter swung just to make it safely to first? I don't see why he wouldn't, but I'm bored in case ya can't tell already.
As long as the batter did nothing to impede the catcher from fielding the ball, then the batter is safe at first. That said, I doubt anyone has ever intentially struck out to get on first.
Is it still a perfect game if you strike out 28 batters in 9 innings, with the extra coming from a dropped third strike? Still a no-hitter, of course, but would it be called a perfect game? For that matter, can a perfect game have an error at all?
Indeed.... a game that is "perfect". There's a reason there have been only 17 perfect games in the vast history of baseball... but there's always at least one no-hitter every year.
