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Western Conference Semifinals: (2) Oklahoma City vs. (3) LA Clippers

Discussion in 'NBA Dish' started by J.R., May 4, 2014.

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(2) Oklahoma City vs. (3) LA Clippers

Poll closed May 6, 2014.
  1. Thunder in 4

    1.4%
  2. Thunder in 5

    2.9%
  3. Thunder in 6

    20.0%
  4. Thunder in 7

    24.3%
  5. Clippers in 7

    20.0%
  6. Clippers in 6

    28.6%
  7. Clippers in 5

    1.4%
  8. Clippers in 4

    1.4%
  1. downbytheriver

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    What did doc say??
     
  2. BleedRocketsRed

    BleedRocketsRed Contributing Member

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    http://mediacentral.nba.com/media/mediacentral/Official-NBA-Rule-Book.pdf

    Rule # 8, Section II, Part C, Third Sentence lol

    It does apply imo, it was the contact which caused him to lose the ball.
     
  3. t_mac1

    t_mac1 Contributing Member

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    Why is TNT still talking about Donald Sterling?

    Sucks that fool is taking all the attention from all these great games.
     
  4. A_3PO

    A_3PO Member

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    The link is below. Go to page 30. It's actually Rule 8, Section II, point c.

    http://mediacentral.nba.com/media/mediacentral/Official-NBA-Rule-Book.pdf

    c. The ball is caused to go out-of-bounds by the last player to touch it before it goes out, provided it is out-of-bounds because of touching something other than a player. If the ball is out-of-bounds because of touching a player who is on or outside a boundary, such player caused it to go out. If a player has his hand in contact with the ball and an opponent hits the hand causing the ball to go out-of-bounds, the team whose player had his hand on the ball will retain possession.
     
    1 person likes this.
  5. aesthetics80

    aesthetics80 Member

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    What is your source? That rule is not listed here.

    http://www.nba.com/analysis/rules_8.html
     
  6. Easy

    Easy Boban Only Fan
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    This.

    If the guy is holding the ball and you hit his hand, it's not a foul. But if the ball goes out of bound because you hit the hand, it's the opponent's ball.

    The age old "hand is part of the ball" rule.
     
  7. Icehouse

    Icehouse Contributing Member

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    So what exactly is Doc crying about? He says Jackson was fouled. So is his argument "we got screwed because they blew the call going our way but ignore them blowing the foul call that should have given OKC free throws"? Your man fouled him. Jackson should have been at the line. Instead they got the ball out. CP3 clearly fouled Westbrook on the 3-pointer. Be happy they let him get away with it on Curry last series or you might not even be in this round.
     
  8. el gnomo

    el gnomo Member

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    It does apply because Barnes hit one hand and it went out. You couldn't see if it hit the opposite hand. And you think TNT created the rule?

    here:

    http://mediacentral.nba.com/media/mediacentral/NBACaseBook.pdf

    top of page 52.
     
  9. aesthetics80

    aesthetics80 Member

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    Ahh ok. Well in any case, my point stills stands that Barnes didn't hit the same hand that hit the ball out, but the opposite hand.
     
  10. aesthetics80

    aesthetics80 Member

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    No, it was clear that it was the opposite hand. Barnes swiped Reggies left hand and the his right hand/palm is what pushed it out
     
  11. roxallways

    roxallways Member
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    I'm willing to bet NBA and A LOT of people would not be sad at all if Clips and their circus would just go away for a while and stop distracting from the rest of the playoffs.
     
  12. BleedRocketsRed

    BleedRocketsRed Contributing Member

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    Huh? You think Jackson loses the ball there without the (obvious) contact?
     
  13. mr. 13 in 33

    mr. 13 in 33 Member

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    Could you imagine hearing JVG rant about what happened.
     
  14. el gnomo

    el gnomo Member

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    211. At 1:23 of the fourth period the officials rule Team A caused the ball to go out-of-bounds but were not reasonably certain. During instant replay review, the officials observe player B1 having hsi hand on the ball and Player A1 hitting his hand causing the ball to go out-of-bounds. The officials should confirm the call on the court following the review.

    True, since Player B1's hand is considered part of the ball, Player A1 hit the 'ball' causing it to go out-of-bounds and therefore the ball is awarded to Team B.

    Rule 8 - SECTION II - c
     
  15. Aleron

    Aleron Contributing Member

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    http://mediacentral.nba.com/media/mediacentral/Official-NBA-Rule-Book.pdf

    It's there and the interpretation is whether hitting the other hand caused it go out, which I would argue is true.
     
  16. Mr. Space City

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    there was a game this year where jimmy butler hit lebron's hands at the end of a game and they did't call a foul. think it happened like 2-3 times that game.
     
  17. khanhdum

    khanhdum Member

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    so since we're saying he hit the hand when the ball was in contact, then really it wasn't a foul right? it did seem like he hit the left hand he lost control, and then his right hand pushed the ball out of bounds.

    anyways it's done, nothing can be done anymore.
     
  18. aesthetics80

    aesthetics80 Member

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    What does that have to do with anything? The foul was not called, and Barnes did not hit the hand that hit it out.

    [​IMG]

    Reggie's right hand is the last to touch. Look at the trajectory, he's raising the ball vertically, then after it peaks and only his right hand is near the ball it suddenly changes course.
     
  19. BleedRocketsRed

    BleedRocketsRed Contributing Member

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    It was a choke. Plain and simple. You can point at the call and blame the NBA all you want but that does not discount the fact that the Clippers were up by 7 with 44 seconds to go and lost. Clippers choked that away. 2 turnovers and a missed layup in like the last 30 seconds? Can't blame the refs for that.
     
  20. Mr. Space City

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    the thunder got calls all game.
     

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